CertificationQuestionsForAll

Citrix(1y0-913) MetaFrame XP Presentation Server, Enterprise Ed, Feature Release Administration

2008-10-11T02:11:00.000-07:00

1.What does a blue status light next to an application in the resource manager tab of the Application node indicate?
A. The application is in use.
B. The metric has been snoozed.
C. The metric have not been configured.
D. The application is not yet configured for use by clients.
Answer: C

2.Which option is an example of an ADF file produced by the packager for installation
manager?
A. MFXP001.MSI
B. MFXP002 ADF
C. MSIEXEC.EXE
D. MFX003.WFS
Answer: D

3.Resource Manager provides application alerting that focuses on which management
component?
A. Usage
B. Performance
C. Server health
D. Resource utilization
Answer: A

4.Which of the following is not an ICA Web client?
A. Java
B. Active X Control
C. Netscape Plug-in
D. Macintosh Plug-in
Answer: D

5.Which file on the MetaFrame XP Server is automatically updated with printer driver
information?
A. WTSPRNT.INF
B. XPPRNT.INF
C. SYSTEM.INI
D. CLTPRINT.INF
Answer: A

6.By default, with TCP port allows NFuse to receive and send application data?
A. 8080
B. 80
C. 23
D. 1604
Answer: B

7.What does the SecureICA Client sent to MetaFrame XP server during logon?
A. Public Key
B. Session Key
C. Private Key
D. Kerberos V5 Key
Answer: A

8.By default, how many listener ports are created for each protocol?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. Four
Answer: B

9.What is the name of the default local database created when resource manager is installed?
A. XPLocalStore
B. XPLocalDatabase
C. RMLocalStore
D. RMLocalDatabase
E. RMSummaryDatabase
Answer: D

10.Where are the actions taken on a project recorded?
A. Event log
B. History log
C. Registry changes
D. Installation sequence
Answer: D

11.Using Medium Quality on badwidth will compress audio to what maximum?
A. 16 Kps
B. 56 Kps
C. 64 Kps
D. 128 Kps
Answer: C

12.The system and application metrics monitored by resource manager are configured on
which levels?
A. Local and farm
B. Server and client
C. Basic and advanced
D. User and administrator
Answer: A

13.You need to create a system snapshot for a sever in the farm.Which node is
the management console for MetaFtame XP will allow you to perform this function?
A. Server
B. Application
C. Load Evaluators
D. Resource Manager
E. MetaFtame XP Administrators
Answer: D

14.Which statement about Application Launching is true?
A. When configuring Application Launching, a Web server must be installed.
B. Launched applications must be published.
C. The HTML code required for Application Launching can be created automatically
using the Citrix Management Console utility.
D. The ICA file used cannot be stored on a locally disk drive.
Answer: C

15.By default, what is the threshold for reporting no load for the total Disk Data I/O?
A. 0 Kbps
B. 1Kbps
C. 10Kbps
D. 20Kbps
E. 100Kbps
Answer: A

16.Which tab in the resource manager pane of the management console should be a accessed to create fee profiles?
A. SMS
B. Billing
C. Reports
D. Watcher
E. Summary Database
Answer: B

17.In which utility can and ICA Gateway be configured?
A. Application Configuration
B. Published Application Manager
C. Citrix Server Administration
D. Load Balancing Administration
Answer: C

18.Which resource manager component interprets metrics that apply to an entire server
farm?
A. Data Collector
B. Farm Metric Server
C. Server Farm manager
D. Database Connection Server
Answer: B

19.An administrator wants to temporarily stop an alarm from reporting in resource
manager. The administrator should right-click on the alarm and choose which option?
A. Sleep
B. Pause
C. Silence
D. Snooze
Answer: D

20.Under which source are ADF package errors reported to the Event Log?
A. Msilnstaller
B. ADFFinstaller
C. Gemini Installer
D. Package Installer
Answer: A

21.Which feature of resource manager enables administrator to correct potential problems before they become more serious?
A. Alert on yellow
B. Folder support
C. Snapshor report
D. Graphing capabilities
Answer: A

22.Which tool allows user to publish applications?
A. Network Manager
B. Resource Manager
C. Installation Manager
D. Management console for MetaFrame XP
Answer: D

23.Brian is making a registry change with the packager using installation manager.
On the packager system, which directory must contain the Reg file?
A. The Root directory
B. The New Project directory
C. The directory containing Packager
D. The directory containing the batch file
Answer: C

24.Which component of installation manager restores the packaging environment quickly, reading it for new installation packages?
A. ADF Service
B. Citrix Packager
C. Installer Service
D. Cirtix Installation Manager Plug-in
Answer: B

25.Using Seamless Windows in a load balanced environment can cause multiple Citrix licenses to be consumed for a single user.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

26.Which ICA client workstation configuration does the WinFrame automatic printer
creation feature work with?
A. Stand-alone Windows terminals
B. UNIX workstation with the Citrix ICA Client for Java installed
C. Macintosh computers with the Citrix ICA client for Macintosh installed.
D. Workstation running DOS with the Citrix ICA Client for DOS installed.
E. Workstation running Windows with the Citrix ICA Client for Windows installed
Answer: D

27.Using Medium Quality on badwidth will compress audio to what maximum?
A. 16 Kps
B. 56 Kps
C. 64 Kps
D. 128 Kps
Answer: C

28.What feature of resource manager displays information about the previous status of a server at a given time in the past?
A. Server Log
B. Billing Reports
C. Watcher Window
D. System Snapshot
E. System Trend Reporter
Answer: D

29.Which utility's responsible for managing installation manager packages?
A. Public Application Manager
B. Package Application Manager
C. Access Management Console
D. Management console of MetaFrame XP
Answer: D

30.You need to move a MetaFrame XP server to another farm. What command line utility
would you use?
A. modify/xpfarm
B. Qfarm/move
C. cgfarm
D. chfarm
E. rnfarm
Answer: D

31.Which is recommended for securing SMTP mail alerts for resource manager?
A. Enable SSL revocation.
B. Send emails through IIS.
C. Configure and use SSL to send your email alerts.
D. Enable the Secure SMTP within your mail server configuration.
Answer: C

32.Which connection types and network protocols can be used with the ICA protocol?
A. Date link control
B. Internet and Intranet
C. Direct asynchronous
D. Systems Network Architecture
Answer: B,C

33.By default, how many Citrix administrators accounts are created after MetaFrame XP is installed?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. Four
Answer: B

34.Client LPT mapping is available for all clients except?
A. UNIX
B. MAC
C. DOS
D. WIN 16
Answer: B

35.Which two can be used to record the history of server and application metrics using the Resource Manager summary

database?
A. MSDE
B. IBM DB2
C. Oracle Database Versions 7
D. Oracle Database Version s 6
E. Microsoft SQL Server Versions 7
Answer: C,E

Citrix(1Y0-611):Design,Integration and Methodology

2008-10-10T13:14:00.000-07:00

1.On what platforms can Installation Manager 2.0 are installed?
(Choose three.)
A. MetaFrame XP
B. MetaFrama 1.8
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. Windows 2000 Servers with terminal Services
E. Window NT 4.0 Server, Terminal Server Edition
Answer: A,D,E

2.For which of the following is the Winstation driver directly responsible?
A. Framing
B. Compression
C. Transport
D. Encryption
Answer: B

3.You create a new ICA Virtual Channel that requires additional parameters to execute.
Where are the parameters stored for use?
A. the pn.ini file
B. the wtclient.ini file
C. the confiq xml file
D. the module ini file
Answer: D

4.Which of the following is not an ICA Web client?
A. Java
B. Active X Control
C. Netscape Plug-in
D. Macintosh Plug-in
Answer: D

5.You customer has asked you to assist with minimizing the user logon time to the
MetaFrame servers. The environment consist of Windows 2000 and Windows XP client
devices only. You review Terminal Service Licensing to ensure that it has been configured
correctly. Which of the following is most likely to cause a logon delay.
A. Terminal Services Licensing is installed every server.
B. Terminal services Licensing is only installed on one server.
C. There are only 10 Terminal Services Client Access Licenses Available.
D. In frequent (monthly) backups are made of the Terminal Services Licensing data.
Answer: A

6.What does the SecureICA Client send to the MetaFrame XP server during logon?
A. Public Key
B. Session Key
C. Private Key
D. Kerberos v5 key
Answer: A

7.You the administrator for users with different printers connected to their local
workstation. How do you manage the drivers for all these printers?
A. Restrict bandwidth so only a few printers work properly.
B. Only allow network printing.
C. Edit the printer driver compatibility list.
D. Have each ICA Client install the print the driver within their session.
Answer: C

8.Which of the following does the Os kernel NOT include?
A. an interrupt handler that handles all requests or completed I/O operations.
B. A Manager of the operating system that address space in memory or storage
C. A subsystem that is responsible for console windows and the creation and deletion of
threads.
D. A scheduler that determines which programs share the processing time in what priority.
Answer: C

9.Which of the following virtual channels is responsible for auto-client printers?
A. CTXPN
B. CTXCM
C. CTXCPM
D. CTXLPTI
Answer: C

10.Which two options are solutions to the problem of DLL conflicts, which can occur when
installing applications on the same server? (Choose two)
A. DLL Redirection.
B. Load Managed Groups
C. Seamless applications
D. Application Compatibility
Answer: A,D

11.Which of the following features does install mode use to make an application multi-user an
application multi-user compatible? (Choose two.)
A. INI file mapping.
B. Registry key mapping
C. File system and directory links
D. Application compatibility scripts.
Answer: A,B

12.Which one of the following describes the listener Stack?
A. It is responsible for managing a connection to an active session.
B. It has no client activity and is waiting to be assigned to connection.
C. It is responsible for waiting incoming connection requests.
D. It has a connected user that runs protected from all other instances with an associated ID.
Answer: C

13.What are the tow types of applications to which all ICA clients an connect? (Choose two.)
A. Seamless Applications
B. Published Applications
C. Published Applications
D. Server Applications.
Answer: B,D

14.An ICA Client that is being shadowed can choose to end the shadowing process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

15.Virtual channel packets are contained in the _____ during ICA transmission.
A. command
B. frame head
C. command data
D. frame trailer
Answer: C

16.According to Citrix Methodology, what is the suggested time frame of a Proof of Concept?
A. 1-30 Days
B. 4-6 Weeks
C. 3-6 Months
D. Less than 1 week
Answer: C

17.Sandra is a new administrator of a Citrix server farm. She has installed ten applications for
explicit user access. Users are complaining that one application in particular does not work
correctly when choosing the CTRL_F2 sequence within the application. Sandra should
instruct the users to.
A. Update the ICA client and restart.
B. Edit the hotkeys tab in the ICA client.
C. Run the application in a seamless window.
D. Change the MetaFrame XP server keyboard-mapping file.
Answer: B

18.Client LPT mapping is available for all clients expect _________.
A. UNIX
B. MAC
C. DOS
D. WIN 16
Answer: B

19.You have created a new ICA virtual channel called "AppHelpl." When the ICA virtual
channel is executed, an error occur. What is potentially causing the error with the new
virtual channel.
A. Numbers cannot be used in the name.
B. All virtual channels must start with CTX.
C. Capital letters cannot be used in the name.
D. There are more then seven characters in the name.
Answer: D

20.Which of the following IMA components are included with a dedicated zone data collector?
(Choose two.)
A. Data Store Database
B. Dynamic Store
C. Local Host Cache
D. Citrix Management Console
Answer: B,C

21.Select two components of SpeedScreen Latency Reduction. (Choose two.)
A. Client
B. Local
C. Remote
D. Server
Answer: A,D

22.SpeedScreem Latency Reduction reduces latency on connections where the round trip
latency is between __________.
A. 150-500ms
B. 500-1000ms
C. 1000-2000ms
D. 2000-5000ms
Answer: A

23.Which options for administering client cache can be set within Program Neighborhood?
(Chose three.)
A. The maximum bitmap size to be cached.
B. The maximum bitmap size to be cached.
C. The directory where the images will be stored.
D. The persistent cache timeout parameter.
E. The maximum mount of disk space to be used for cached.
Answer: B,C,E

24.During the pilot implementation, it is important to select the appropriate mix of
users and IT staff. These users provide feedback that allows the project team toe gather
hands on knowledge and experience before moving the environment into production once
the results of the pilot are obtained, the project team should determine which factor?
A. If all risks have been identified for the project
B. If they selected the best mix of end users and IT staff for the pilot.
C. If the application are ready to be deployed in a production envrironment.
D. If necessary performance counters to monitor average network utilization have been
validated.
Answer: B

25.Which one of the following Terminal Services Kernel Mode components is responsible for
transferring remote keystrokes and mouse movements to the Windows kernel?
A. Display Driver
B. WinStation Driver
C. Listener/Session Stack
D. Graphics Device Interface
E. Terminal Server Device Driver
Answer: E

26.What functions can you perform with the Citrix Management Console's License node?
(Choose three.)
A. Remove Citrix licenses.
B. Add Citrix licenses.
C. Activate Windows 2000 Server licneses.
D. Set the product code for MetaFrame XP.
E. Assign product license counts to specific MetaFrame XP servers.
Answer: A,B,E

27.What is the default priority for the printer mapping channel?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

28.By which means does the Program neighborhood Subsystem use to communicate with the
Local Host Cache?
A. XML
B. ODBC
C. IMA RPC
D. TCP+HTTP
Answer: B

29.What are Nfuse features? (Choose two.)
A. Connections via IPX
B. Cookie encryption
C. Client side scripting
D. Secure socket Layer
Answer: B,D

30.By default, what TCP port does SSL use to encrypt HTTP traffic?
A. 1494
B. 443
C. 21
D. 1023
E. 401
Answer: B

31.What will happen if you neglect to activate your MetaFrame XP license before the grace
period has expired?
A. MetaFrame XP server will activate the license itself if an Internet connection is present.
B. Your MetaFrame XP server will no longer accept user connections.
C. Users connecting to your MetaFrame XP server will log on successfully but will receive a
license notification dialog box.
D. Nothing; you users will still be able to log on to your server.
Answer: B

32.Which is one benefit of memory-based code sharing?
A. It allows the OS kernel to allocate memory to user processes dynamically.
B. It is a significant optimize, as only a single instance of the application must reside in
memory.
C. It makes Terminal Services more robust, by maintaining redundant copies of an
executable in memory.
D. It allows the memory manager to be more flexible and scalable, utilizing multiple
processors, when available.
Answer: B

33.You create a new ICA Virtual Channel that requires additional parameters to execute.
Where are the parameters stored for use?
E. the pn.ini file
F. the wtclient.ini file
G. the confiq xml file
H. the module ini file
Answer: D

34.You are testing an application for a Metal same XP Presentation server deployment and
find that the following registry key is used by the applicant to locate application settings.
HKLM/Software/ Application/ Setting.ini
How can this issue be address?
A. Use a hybrid profile.
B. B. Use roaming profie.
C. Upadate the value for the registry key to the user's home drive.
D. Install the application into its own load managed Group (I.M.G)
Answer: D

35.Scenario. You are testing an application called ReportApp and find out that it reference
the default reports path setting in the following registry key.
Key. HKLM/Software/Report APP/ Rep Path.
Type.REG_SZ
Value C/Program files/ Report APP/
Design Goals:
1. Ensure that users reports are output to user specific locations.
2. Minimize Administrative effort.
3. Provide the best performance.
How can these goals be accomplished?
A. Set s home directory H / for each user, and implement and application
compatibility script run during user login.
B. Set a home directory as H/For each user and implement and application
compatibility script run at install time.
C. Reinstall the server remapped dries , install the application to the M: drive
and map the C:/ drive as the user's home directory.
D. Reinstall the server remapped dries , install the application to the M: drive
and map the N:/ drive as the user's home directory.
Answer: B

36.What functions can you perform with the Citrix Management Console's License node?
(Choose three.)
F. Remove Citrix licenses.
G. Add Citrix licenses.
H. Activate Windows 2000 Server licneses.
I. Set the product code for MetaFrame XP.
J. Assign product license counts to specific MetaFrame XP servers.
Answer: A,B,E

37.Which of the following is required for load Manager to work? (Choose two.)
A. Install and activate the Load Manager License.
B. Install the correct MetaFrame XP product code.
C. Configure Load Manager from within the Citrix Management Conosle.
D. Have at least three MetaFrame XP servers in the Server Farm.
Answer: B,C

Citrix:(1Y0-310) MetaFrame Administration for UNIX Operating Systems

2008-10-10T11:39:00.000-07:00

1.Client LPT mappings is available for all clients expect _______.
A. UNIX
B. MAX
C. DOS
D. WIN 16
Answer: B

2.By default, how many anonymous accounts are created during the installation of
MetaFrame for UNIX?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
Answer: B

3.The client workstation uses the ICA protocol to send keystrokes and mouse clicks to the
MetaFrame server. The MetaFrame server sends ______ updates to the ICA client.
A. Screen
B. Client
C. Spooler
D. Network
Answer: A

4.What statements about data collectors are true? (Choose two)
A. By default, there are two Data collectors in each Zone.
B. Individual servers do not directly query servers from other Zones.
C. Data collectors send messages between Zones.
D. By default, there are no Data collectors in a Zone.
E. Each server directly queries servers in other Zones for any necessary information.
Answer: B, C

5.In a server-based environment, applications are executed on the client, rather than on
the server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

6.What statement about the hard disk requirements for Solaris is correct?
A. 400MB minimum for the desktop and 600MB minimum for the server.
B. 600MB minimum for the desktop and 800MB minimum for the server.
C. 600MB minimum for the desktop and 600MB minimum for the server.
D. 400MB minimum for the desktop and 400MB minimum for the server.
Answer: C

7.By default, which TCP port allows NFuse to receive and send application data?
A. 8080
B. 80
C. 23
D. 1604
Answer: B

8.Which tool is required to install MetaFrame in an HP-UX environment?
A. pkgadd
B. swinstall
C. smit
D. Add/Remove Program in Control Panel.
Answer: B

9.What does the SecureICA Client send to the MetaFrame XP server during logon?
A. Public Key
B. Session Key
C. Private Key
D. Kerberos V5 key
Answer: A

10.Which command lets you view the printers installed on the client?
A. ctxprinters
B. ctxmfprnt
C. ctxviewprnt
D. ctxspoolerview
Answer: A

11.In order to shadow a user from your MetaFrame server, which command must you
execute?
A. ctxshadow
B. MFshadow
C. Shadowsession
D. ctxshadowsession
Answer: A

12.Which Event Log level does MetaFrame not support?
A. User.file
B. User.Notice
C. User.Err
D. User.Debug
E. User.Warning
Answer: A

13.Which command will allow the configuration of the ICA Browser server on your
MetaFrame for UNIX machine?
A. ctxbrcf
B. ctxbr
C. ctxcfgbr
D. ctxbrowser
Answer: A

14.If your goal were to view a list of information concerning Published Applications on all
your MetaFrame for UNI X servers, which command would you use?
A. Ctxserver
B. Ctxqserver
C. Ctxmfview
D. Ctxdisplayinfor
Answer: B

15.Which of the following is not an ICA Web client?
A. Java
B. Active X Control
C. Netscape Plug-in
D. Macintosh Plug-in
Answer: D

16.Which command is needed to install MetaFrame for UNIX?
A. pkgadd
B. addpkg
C. set app
D. cat app
Answer: A

17.Which platforms does MetaFrame for UNIX support?
A. AIX 4.3.3
B. HP-UX version 11.0
C. Solaris 2.6
D. Solaris 8
Answer: A, B, C, D

18.A MetaFrame for UNIX license is not always added to the license pool after installation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

19.Which statement about Application Launching is true?
A. When configuring Application Launching, a Web server must be installed.
B. Launched applications must be published.
C. The HTML code required for Application Launching can be created automatically
using the Citrix Management Console utility.
D. The .ICA file used cannot be stored on a locally disk drive.
Answer: B

20.While installing MetaFrame, Becky is prompted to create an Anonymous user group.
She does, creating the ctxanon group.
What will this group provide?
A. The ctxanon group will provide ten user guest accounts, ensuring that anonymous
users can access published applications.
B. The ctxanon group will provide 15 user guest accounts, ensuring that anonymous users
can access published applications.
C. The ctxanon group will provide 25 user guest accounts, ensuring that anonymous users
can access published applications.
D. The ctxanon group will provide 35 user guest accounts, ensuring that anonymous users
can access published applications.
Answer: B

21.Mike wants to determine the resources an application uses on his server.
Which command will he use?
A. statvm
B. vmstat
C. appvmstat
D. vmstatapp
Answer: B

22.Select two differences between MetaFrame for UNIX and MetaFrame for Windows.
A. ICA 3.0 clients
B. Shadowing
C. Audio or COM port mapping is not supported.
D. Client drive mapping
Answer: A, B

23.Curt is preparing to install MetaFrame for UNI X on his Solaris machine. He wants to
verify that the iconv libraries are installed.
What files must he locate in the /usr/lib/iconv folder? (Choose three)
A. uft-8* .so
B. uft-l* .so
C. ucs-l* .so
D. 8859-1* .so
Answer: A, D, E

24.MetaFrame for UNIX is compatible with which hardware compatibility list? (HCL).
A. Citrix Hardware Compatibility List.
B. Solaris Hardware Compatibility List.
C. Microsoft Hardware Compatibility List.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

25.What statements are accurate? (Choose two)
A. You will save hard drive space if you disable the disk cache for bitmaps.
B. If a connection has limited bandwidth, enabling the disk cache for bitmaps will further
decrease performance.
C. Queue Mouse Movements and Keystrokes are never selected by default Program
Neighborhood.
D. The ICA Client does not need to have a sound card configured in order to select
Enable Sound.
Answer: A, C

Citrix(1Y0-222)

2008-10-04T23:38:00.000-07:00

1. If Installation Manager is to be used to deploy applications to every server in the server
farm, what must be installed on each MetaFrame XP server?
A. Installer
B. Package
C. The Management Console for MetaFrame XP
D. Installation Manager Plug-in
Answer: A

2. Which three font sizes are supported with SpeedScreen latency reduction? (Choose
three).
A. 6 Points.
B. 16 Points.
C. 48 Points.
D. 52 Points.
Answer: A,B,C

3. A new server is added into the farm for redundancy. It is decided that this computer will
become the Backup Farm Metric Server and a TAPI server.
Where should the administrator look to turn this machine into a Backup Farm Metric
Server?
A. Server Properties of the new machine
B. Resource Manager Node
C. Farm Properties
D. Zone Properties
Answer: B

4. Which command can be used to obtain information from the local host cache concerning
the zone names and host IDs of the server farm.
A. HOSTHR.
B. QUERYHR
C. SHOWFARM
D. MFDISPLAY.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is the default addressing mode MetaFrame XP servers in an
access center?
A. Normal
B. Alternate
C. Translated
D. Secure Gateway
Answer: A

6. When configuring the ICA Connection for Shadowing which of the following must be
used so that individual user configurations to take precedence over the ICA connection
settings for shadowing?
A. ICA Toolbar
B. User Manager
C. Inherit User Config
D. Citrix Shadow Taskbar
Answer: C

7. You have been given the task of creating a configuration file on your MetaFrame XP
server.By default, what is the name of the configuration file that is loaded by Program
Neighborhood Agent?
A. xpcfg.ica
B. config.xml
C. pnfile.xml
D. config.ica
Answer: B

8. Which command can be used to automatically configure the ICA Client reconnection
settings on a MetaFrame XP server or server farm?
A. acrcfg
B. icareset
C. reconnect ica
D. mfclient /reconnect
Answer: A

9. Which of the following items are required for joining an existing MetaFrame XP
Presentation server farm? (Choose two)
A. the name of the data store server
B. the name of the domain administrator
C. the IP address of the data store server
D. the logon credentials of a user authorized to access the data store
Answer: A,D

10. The Independent Management Architecture Service is required for which of the
following MetaFrame XP function? (Choose two).
A. Application enumeration.
B. Local host cache refresh.
C. Intra-zone communications.
D. Interoperability model load balancing.
Answer: B,C

11. What tool must be used in order to enable modem callback?
A. Citrix Dialup Manager
B. MetaFrame Connection Manager
C. Citrix Connection Configuration
D. the Management Console for MetaFrame XP
Answer: C

12. Which three versions of NDS are supported with MetaFrame XP Presentation Server,
Feature Release 3? (Choose three)
A. NetWare 3.1 or later
B. NetWare 4.11 or later
C. NetWare 6 or later
D. NetWare 5 with Support Pack 6
E. NetWare 5.1 with Support Pack 2
Answer: C, D, E

13. The standard grace period to activate a MetaFrame XP Presentation Service license is
_______.
A. Ten days
B. Two weeks
C. One month
D. 35 days
E. 45 days
Answer: D

14. In Load Manager, on which metric does the Default load evaluator base its result?
A. memory usage
B. CPU utilization
C. server user load
D. application user load
Answer: C

15. How can an existing wlsuprn. Txt file be manually imported into a MetaFrame XP farm
data store?
A. Run "qprinter / replica wlsuprn.lxt"
B. Run "Dsmant / imprmapping wtsuprn. Txt. \
C. Run "qrpinter / imprmapping wlsuprint.txt"
D. manually copy stsuprn. Txt to all of the MetaFrame XP servers in the farm.
Answer: C

16. Which of the following can be used to provide users with access to MetaFrame XP
Presentation Server applications through a standard Web browser?
A. Citrix Connection Configuration
B. Citrix Program Neighborhood Agent
C. the Web Interface for MetaFrame XP
D. the Management Console for MetaFrame XP
Answer: C

17. Which protocol does Citrix recommend when configuringthe ODBC driver for IBM
DB2?
A. IPX
B. RDP
C. XML
D. TCP/IP
Answer: D

18. What is the default location of the Nfuse.conf file in a standard installation of the Web
Interface for MetaFrame XP?
A. \Program Files\Citrix\Nfuse\
B. \system32\java\trustlib\
C. \Program Files\Citrix\Nfuse\conf\
D. \system32\java\trustlib\conf\
Answer: C

19. Jason has used the altaddr command to change the IP address setting for a MetaFrame
XP server. What else must be done for the new setting to take effect?
A. Restart the IMA Service
B. Restart the XML Service
C. Reboot the MetaFrame XP server
D. Update all Citrix Administrator accounts
Answer: A

20. On which operating system can MetaFrame XP Presentation server be installed? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Windows 2000 Professional
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows 2003 Professional
D. Windows NT Server 4.0, Terminal Services Edition
Answer: B, D

21.The election process uses which protocol to determine the data collector?
A. ICA
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

22. The Independent Management Architecture Service is required for which of the
following MetaFrame XP function? (Choose two).
A. Application enumeration.
B. Local host cache refresh.
C. Intra-zone communications.
D. Interoperability model load balancing.
Answer: B,C

23. The administrator needs to provide users with access to application sets. If the users are
using thin terminals, what method would allow them access?
A. Custom Connection
B. Publish Program Neighborhood
C. Publish Application Set Manager
D. Publish Program Neighborhood Agent
Answer: B

24. Which Novell client version is needed for MetaFrame XP to access NDS on Novell
services?
A. 3.1
B. 3.5
C. 4.8
D. 6.0
Answer: C

25. Connections with which network latency benefit least from SpeedScreen latency
reduction?
A. 0 -150 ms
B. 150 - 300 ms
C. 300 - 500 ms
D. 500 - 1000 ms
Answer: A

26.In regard to content redirection, what is the most likely cause for the error: "No file type
are available for this application" what is the most likely cause?
A. The registry on the server is corrupt.
B. The Citrix XML service is misconfigured.
C. The appropriate application is not installed.
D. The task "Update file types from the Registry" in the Management Console for
MetaFrame XP has not been performed.
Answer: C

27. What is the purpose of the local host cache?
A. Maintains a subset of the data store.
B. Maintains a copy of the data collector.
C. Maintains session information in the zone.
D. Maintains session information in the farm.
Answer: A

28. Which command can be used to install MetaFrame XP Presentation Server?
A. setupxp
B. Msiexec
C. Xpinstall
D. Mfinstall
Answer: B

29.To change the TCP/IP port used by the ICA protocol from 1494 to 1524, which
command can be used?
A. ICAPORT /port: 1524
B. ICAPORT /port 1494 1524
C. CHANGE ICAPORT /1524
D. CHANGE PORT / 1494: 1524
Answer: A

30. What displayed maximum load level indicates that the load balanced servers are
carrying a full load?
A. 1000
B. 9999
C. 10000
D. 99999
Answer: C

31. By default when printing to an auto created network printer from a MetaFrame XP
server, what will the MetaFrame XP server do?.
A. It will generate an error, Network printers cannot be auto createdl.
B. It will send the job to the client device outside the ICA data stream as a standard
TCP/IP print job for subsequent delivery to the network printer.
C. It will send the print job directly to the network printer as a TCP/IP print, job IF
unsuccessful, it will then send the job to the client device inside the ICA data stream
for subsequent delivery to the network printer.
D. It will send the print job directly to the network printer as a TCP/IP print job. If
unsuccessful, it will then send the job to the client device outside the ICA data stream
for subsequent delivery to the network printer.
Answer: C

32. By default, how many listener ports are created for each protocol?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
E. 15
Answer: B

33. Dan must change the registry settings on the MetaFrame XP Presentation Server in
order to support the Netware Client. Which key he must be modified for this
implementation to work successfully?
A. HKEY-LOCAL-MACHINE/SOFTWARE/Citrix/Novell Client
B. HKEY-LOCAL-MACHINE/SOFTWARE/Novell/Citrix Client
C. HKEY-LOCAL-MACHINE/SOFTWARE/Microsoft/Keyring/Parameters
D. HKEY-LOCAL-MACHINE/SOFTWARE/Microsoft/Windows NT/Current
Version/Winlogon
Answer: D

34. You are a new administrator of a Citrix server farm. You have installed ten applications
for explicit user access. Users are complaining that one application does not work
correctly when choosing the CTRL-F2 sequence with the application. You should
instruct the users to .
A. update the ICA client and retest
B. edit the Hotkeys tab in the ICA client
C. run the application in a seamless window
D. change the MetaFrame XP server keyboard mapping file
Answer: B

35. Under which two circumstances would the BUILTIN Group option be used? (Choose
two)
A. For compatibility with Microsoft Script Debugger
B. For compatibility with Nowell's ZENworks product
C. If the network environment is configured with Windows workgroups.
D. If the network environment is configured with Windows network domains.
Answer: B,C

36. Which command allows and administrator to configure ICA connection settings that
determine graphics performance over the ICA display virtual channel?
A. SETCHAN
B. TWCONFIG
C. CHANGEVC
D. MFDISPLAY.
Answer: B

37. What tool is used to enable client printer connection at logon?
A. ICA Client Creator.
B. The Management Console for MetaFrame XP.
C. ICA Client Update Configuration.
D. Citrix Connection Configuration Manager.
Answer: D

38. How many users can connect to a server using the default load evaluator?
A. 10
B. 99
C. 100
D. 200
E. 1000
Answer: C

39. What display s all of the associations of Load Evaluators with servers and published
applications?
A. Farm node, Properties windows.
B. Load Evaluator node, Usage Report Tab.
C. Servers node, load Manager Monitor Tab.
D. Servers node, Load manager Servers dialog Box. \
Answer: B

40. What can be used to specify that an ICA connection use some settings from their user
accounts?
A. Inherit User Config
B. Inherit Client Config
C. Inherit Domain Config
D. Inherit Session Config
Answer: A

checkpoint (156-510)

2008-10-04T22:59:00.000-07:00

1.When using IP pools for MEP VPN access, where would you specify the pool to be used for a
particular gateway?
A. The NAT screen of the gateway's properties configuration
B. The ADVANCED screen of the gateway's properties configuration
C. The VPN screen of the gateway's properties screen
D. The TOPOLOGY screen of the gateway's properties configuration
Answer: A

2. If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart
Answer: D

3. Which is the correct format on a Windows platform to enable debug mode in fwd on an enforcement
module only server?
A. fwd -d -n
B. fwd -d
C. fw d -d -n
D. fw d -d
Answer: D

4. What is the name given to the globally unique ID associated with an entry in an LDAP sever?
A. Domain name
B. Distinguished name
C. Global property
D. Distinguished number
Answer: B

5. Which three files can be generated by a Unix core dump?
A. vmunix.
B. vmcore.
C. unixdump
D. core
Answer: A, B, D

6. In an LDAP database two entries cannot have the same common name (CN). True or false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

7.Which is NOT a valid entity in the LDAP tree structure?
A. OU
B. C
C. CN
D. CU
Answer: D

8. On a Windows NT FW-1 system, how would you increase the amount of memory allocated to the
kernel to 5MBytes?
A. Set the value of
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Service\FW1\Parameters\Memory to
5000000
B. Type "# zap -s _fwhmem $FWDIR/modules/fwmod.o 5000000"
C. Type "set fw:fwhmem=5000000"
D. Type"# echo "fwhmem?W500000" | adb -w /stand/vmnt"
Answer: A

9. What is the result of not configuring CPMAD with enough memory?
A. Some attacks will not be detected
B. It will automatically grab more memory
C. It will automatically flush out old events to create more memory
D. It will exit
Answer: D

10.How often will SecuRemote check for the availability of a VPN gateway by default?
A. 60 secs
B. 120 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 90 secs
Answer: A

11.How much memory is reserved for the VPN-1/FW-1 kernel on a Nokia platform?
A. 5 MB
B. 15 MB
C. 3 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: A

12.Where are MAD errors logged?
A. $FWDIR/bin/cpmad.err
B. $FWDIR/log/cpmad.err
C. $FWDIR/alert/cpmad.err
D. $FWDIR/conf/cpmad.err
Answer: B

13.What port does LEA use?
A. 18182
B. 18184
C. 18181
D. 18183
Answer: B

14.On which module(s) does CPMAD run?
A. An external server
B. The management module
C. The Checkpoint GUI
D. The enforcement module
Answer: B

15.Which of the following are termed CPMAD global parameters?
A. MAD_Memory
B. MAD_syn_attack_action
C. MAD_number_of_connection_attempts
D. MAD_anti_spoofing_mode
Answer: A, C

16.What does "resolver_ttl" do in relation to SecuRemote configuration?
A. Specifies the interval in seconds between RDP status queries
B. Specifies that RDP status queries are sent automatically
C. Specifies the number of seconds that a Securemote client waits for a reply to a RDP status query
D. Controls the time to live when accessing a DNS server
Answer: C

17.Where would it be best to locate a CVP server?
A. On an internal user lan network
B. On a firewalled gateway
C. On a separate isolated segment or DMZ
D. On a remote network
Answer: C

18.Which default ports are used by LDAP?
A. Port 636 for a standard connection
B. Port 389 for a standard connection
C. Port 389 for a SSL connection
D. Port 636 for a SSL connection
Answer: B, D

19.What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself
Answer: D

20.By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do with any IPX
traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

21.When exporting a user database using the "fw dbexport" command. What is the default file used?
A. $FWDIR/user/def_file
B. $FWDIR/conf/user_def_file
C. $FWDIR/bin/user_def_file
D. $FWDIR/conf/user_export_file
Answer: B

22.Which debug option will gather information regarding the accept or drop action performed on
traffic?
A. ioctl
B. packet
C. driver
D. kbuf
Answer: B

23.In a load sharing SEP configuration, what mechanism is used to ensure that each gateway sees all the
traffic it needs to?
A. The gateway cluster IP address is used
B. The receiving gateway forwards the packets to the others
C. All packets are broadcast
D. Each gateways is sent the packets separately
Answer: A

24.Addresses allocated from an IP pool remain allocated for a configurable period, even after all
connections to that address are closed. What is the default time before the address is returned to the
pool?
A. 120 mins
B. 180mins
C. 30 mins
D. 60 mins
Answer: D

25.What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8
Answer: A

26.Which two CPMAD parameters are directly used to determine if an attack is taking place?
A. Resolution
B. Action
C. Time_interval
D. Repetitions
E. Mode
Answer: C, D

27.Which command would you use to copy a user database file into VPN-1/FW-1?
A. dbimport
B. fwm dbimport -s "o=city,c=country"
C. fwm dbexport
D. fwm dbimport -f
Answer: D

28.Where can a User Authority Server be installed?
A. A Windows machine with just a FW-1 enforcement module installed
B. A Solaris machine with just a FW-1 management module installed
C. A Solaris or Windows machine with any FW-1 module installed
D. A Windows Domain Controller
Answer: C, D

29.In the following DN, which part is the root?
CN= John Doe, ou= Sales, o= Acme Corp, C= US
A. Acme Corp
B. John Doe
C. Sales
D. US
Answer: D

30.In a high availability management module environment, each management module can function as an
individual certificate authority. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

31.Which file would you modify in order to enable and configure CPMAD?
A. $FWDIR/bin/cpmad_config.conf
B. $FWDIR/conf/cpmad.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/cpmad_config.conf
D. $FWDIR//cpmad/config.conf
Answer: C

32.In a SEP HA environment not using load sharing, the external interfaces of each cluster member must
have the same IP address. True or false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

33.Which command opens a connection to an LDAP server, binds, and performs a search, returning one
or more entries as a result?
A. fw ldapmodify
B. ldapsearch
C. fw ldapcompare
D. fw ldapfind
E. fw ldapsearch
Answer: B

34.Please look at the exhibit, which is a sample output from a "fw ctl pstat" command.
What is the amount of memory allocated for the use by such entities as the state tables?
A. 3072000 bytes
B. 103246 bytes
C. 62857216 bytes
D. 4171460 bytes
Answer: D

35.Which files are useful in the case of a Windows NT Dr. Watson error?
A. WINNT\memory.dmp
B. WINNT\drwtsn32.log
C. WINNT\system.dmp
D. WINNT\user.dmp
Answer: A, B, D

36.How would you perform a manual synchronization in a HA management module environment?
A. On the primary login and click on the "synchronize me" button of the HA management manager
window
B. Perform the "fw hamansync" command
C. On the secondary login and click on the "synchronize me" button of the HA management manager
window
D. On the primary use Policy editor > Policy > Management high availability > click on the
"synchronize" button
Answer: C, D

37.You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
when you perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

38.When are the statistics provided by the fw ctl pstat command reset?
A. After restarting FW-1
B. Whenever you purge the log file
C. On a reboot
D. On entering the command "fw ctl clear"
Answer: A, C

39.Why would you disable NetBEUI on a FW-1 Windows Platform?
A. It can cause FW-1 to crash
B. It clashes with internal FW-1 protocols
C. It is an inefficient protocol
D. It is a security risk
Answer: D

40.For most efficient rulebase operation, which of the following objects would it be preferable to use if
you have many contiguous addresses to translate using static NAT? Assume you could validly use any
of them.
A. Network
B. Workstation
C. Range
Answer: A

Check Point CCSA NG(156-210)

2008-09-12T15:55:00.000-07:00

Q1. What is the command for installing a Security Policy from a *.W file?
A. Fw gen and then the name of the .W file.
B. Fw regen and then the name of the .W file
C. Fw load and then the name of .W file.
D. Fw reload and then the directory location of the .W file.
E. Fw import and then the name of the .W file.

Ans. C

Q2. Hybrid Authentication allows VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG to authenticate SecuRemote/SecureClient, using
which of the following?
A. RADIUS
B. 3DES
C. Any authentication method supported by VPN-1/Firewall-1
D. TACACS

Ans. C

Q3. As a firewall administrator if you want to log packets dropped by "implicit drop anything not
covered" rules, you must explicitly define a Clean-up rule. This must be the last rule in the rule base.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Q4. How does VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG implement Transparent authentication?
A. Unknown user receive error messages indicating that the firewalled gateway does not know the user
names on the gateway.
B. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG prompts for user names even through the authentication data may not be
recognized by the firewall's user database.
C. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG allows connections, but hides the firewall from authenticated users.
D. Unknown users error messages indicating that the host does not know the users names on the server.
E. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG does not allow connections from users who do not know the name of the
firewall.

Answer: C

Q5. When you make a rule, the rule is not enforces as part of your Security Policy.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Q6. As an administrator, you want to force your users to authenticate. You have selected Client
Authentication as your authentication scheme. Users will be using a Web browser to authenticate. On
which TCP port will authentication be performed?
A. 23
B. 900
C. 800
D. 255

Answer: B

Q7. The following rule base tells you any automatically created NAT rules have simply hidden but have
not been deleted from the Rule Base.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Q8. Employees in your building want to be able to get access to files on an ftp server on the DMZ (there is a
diagram in the exam). The employees move around PC's in the building, what is the best authentication
scheme to use so they can access the FTP server?
A. Session
B. User
C. Reverse
D. Client
E. IKE

Answer: B

Q9. User Authentication can be used to authenticate which services? (Select all that apply.)
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. RLOGIN
D. FTP
E. TELNET

Answer: A, C, D, E

Q10. What Implicit Rules are allowed by default in the Global Properties?
A. Accept RIP
B. Accept Firewall Control Connections
C. Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)
D. Accept ICMP Requests
E. Accept CPRID connections (SecureUpdate)

Answer: B, E

Q11. If the security policy is enforced by more than two firewalls how many rule bases would you need?
A. Two rule bases.
B. Only one rule base.
C. One rule base each for each number of network objects there
D. Three rule bases.
E. No rule base is needed to implement your security policy.

Answer: B

Q12. The rules that you define in the Rule Base are known as ______ rules.
A. Implicit
B. Explicit
C. Properties setup
D. Stealth
E. Cleanup

Answer: B

Q13. Which of these is NOT a component of SecureUpdate?
A. Installation Server
B. Installation Manager
C. License Manager
D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q14. Currently, the Accounting Department is FTP-ing a file in the bank. Which Log Viewer Module
would show you the activity occurring at the present time?
A. Security Log.
B. Active Connections Log.
C. Accounting Log-
D. Administrative Log.
E. None of the above.

Answer: B

Q15. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG User Interface consists of which of the following elements?
A. Security Policy Editor, Visual Policy Editor and Object tree view.
B. Management Server and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Module.
C. Visual Policy Editor, Object Tree view and inspection Module.
D. Security Policy Server, System GUI and Module Log Viewer.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Module, Inspection Module and Security Server.

Answer: A

Q16. How do recover communications between your management module and enforcement module if you
lock yourself out via a rule policy that is configured incorrectly?
A. Cp delete all all.
B. Cp pause all all.
C. Cp stop all all.
D. Cp unload all all.
E. Cp push all all.

Answer: D

Q17. As a firewall administrator you encounter the following you error message:
Authentication for command failed.
What is the most logical reasoning for thus type of error message?
A. The Rule Base has been corrupted.
B. The kernel cannot communicate with the management module.
C. The administrator does not have the ability to push the policy.
D. Remote encryption keys cannot be fetched.
E. Client authentication has failed.

Answer: B

Q18. Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to the Internet, that user must
be authenticated. Firewall load is a concern for the customer. Which authentication method does not
result in any additional connections to the firewall?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Answer: A

Q19. You are following the procedure to setup user authentication for TELNET to prompt for a distinct
destination. This allows the firewall to simulate a TELNET Proxy. After you defined the user on the
Firewall and use VPN-1/FireWall-1 Authentication, you would:
A. Stop the Firewall.
B. Restart the Firewall.
C. Start the Policy Editor and go to Manage service, and edit TELNET service.
D. Ensure that the Authentication method is enabled in the firewall object.
E. Ensure that there are no existing rules already allowing TELNET.

Answer: D

Q20. What is the software package through which all Check Point products use infrastructure services?
A. Cpstart/cpstop.
B. Check Point Registry.
C. CPD
D. Watch Dog for critical services.
E. SVN Foundation.

Answer: E

Cisco(640-811):Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices

2008-09-10T17:42:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which IEEE standards apply while implementing 1000mbps Ethernet?
a. 802.3c
b. 802.3a
c. 802.3ab
d. 802.3z

Ans. c,d

Q2. If router is assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, the maximum
number of hosts allowed on this subnet will be __
a. 4094
b. 4095
c. 4096
d. 1024

Ans. a

Q3.What VTP mode should a catalyst switch be to be able to delete and add VLANs to a
management domain?
a. Server
b. client
c. domain
d. user

Ans. a

Q4. Feature of switch used to break up a broadcast domain
a. Cut-through switchin
b. Bridging
c. Port stealing
d. VLANs

Ans. d

Q5. __ Encapsulation is not used when configuring a serial interface on a Cisco
router
a. PPP
b. HDLC
c. Frame relay
d. PAP

Ans. d

Q6. You want to deny network traffic from a specific host.
Access list statement will be
a. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.11.120 255.255.255.0
b. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.11.120 any
c. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.11.120 255.255.255.255
d. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.11.120 host

Ans. a

Q7. Ping command uses
a. ICMP echo request
b. Source quench message
c. Banner advertisement
d. Timestamp message

Ans. a

Q8. The layer of the OSI reference model responsible for ensuring reliable
end-to-end data delivery.
a. Session
b. Presentation
c. Network
d. Application

Ans. c

Q9. In data encapsulation, which of the following is the correct order of protocol
data units?
a. Data, Segment, Frame, Packet, Bit
b. Data, Frame, Segment, Packet, Bit
c. Data, Frame, Packet, Segment, Bit
d. Data, Segment, Packet, Frame, Bit

Ans. d

Q10. By default,how the spanningtree path cost is determined?
a. dynamically determined based on load
b. sum of the costs based on bandwidth
c. total ttl
d. total hop count

Ans. b

Q11. Purpose of Inverse ARP is
a. IP to MAC mapping
b. MAC to IP mapping
c. DLCI to IP mapping
d. none of these

Ans. c

Q12. Which of the following doesnt lead to LAN congestion?
a. Large number of hosts in broadcast domain
b. Multicasting
c. Low Bandwidth
d. Full duplex operations

Ans. d

Q13. Which type of NAT will map multiple private IP addresses to a singular
registered IP address through making use of different ports?
a. NAT overload
b. Static NAT
c. DYnamic NAT
d. Port stealing

Ans. a

Q14. Consider the following:
OfficeName# show running-config Remote# show running-config

interface Serial0/0 interface Serial0/0
ip address 10.0.8.1 255.255.248.0 ip address 10.0.15.2 255.255.248.0
encapsulation frame-relay encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 10.0.15.2 200 frame-relay map ip 10.0.8.1 100
! !
router rip router rip
network 10.0.0.0 network 10.0.0.0
The remote router can be successfully pinged from the office OfficeNAme but the remote users can't access the
server at the central office.
What can be the cause?
a. RIP routing is not forwarded
b. Reverse ARP not configured properly
c. Reverse proxy not configured properly
d. Incorrect IP addressing

Ans. a

Q15. Choose the incorrect option for ISDN B channel:
a. Speeds upto 64 kbps
b. Transmission rate varies according to the service used
c. ISDN D transmits control information
d. can carry video, data and voice, all three

Ans. b

Q16. Which of the following access list statements will deny all telnet connections
to subnet 192.168.1.0/24
a. access-list 117 deny udp any 192.168.1.0 eq telnet
b. access-list 117 deny tcp any 192.168.1.0 eq telnet
c. access-list 17 deny udp any 192.168.1.0 eq telnet
d. access-list 17 deny tcp any 192.168.1.0 eq telnet

Ans. b

Q17. Consider the snippet:
USA#show vtp status
VTP Version: 1
Configuration Revision: 0
Maximum VLANs supported locally: 64
Number of existing VLANs: 5
VTP Operating Mode: Client
VTP Domain Name: USA
VTP Pruning Mode: Disabled
VTP V1 Mode: Disabled
VTP Traps Generation: Disabled

what is the function of the switch?
a. Creation of VLAN
b. Information passing regarding VTP
c. VTP is not enabled
d. It is learning the VTP configuration

Ans. b

Q18. What is the function of ACL?
a. IP route traffic filtering
b. DDR interested traffic identification
c. both a and b
d. none of these

Ans. c

Q19. What command will configure an interface on a Catalyst 2900 series switch to
carry traffic from all VLANs to another directly connected switch
a. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 221
b. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all
c. Switch(config-if)# vlan all all
d. none of these

Ans. b

Q20. You want to configure a router to run OSPF and add a network 192.168.1.11/24
to OSPF area1.
a. Place1 Router1(config)# router ospf 1
b. Place1 Router1(config)# router ospf 0
c. Place1 Router(config)# network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
d. Place1 Router(config)# network 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0 area 0

Ans. a

Cisco(350-030):CCIE Voice Written

2008-09-06T22:19:00.000-07:00

Q1. The fragmentation size of a T1/E1 Frame Relay circuit is determined by __
a. minimun CIR
b. maximum CIR
c. Burst rate
d. Line Speed

Ans. a

Q2. The default fax relay connection rate is __
a. 14200 bps
b. 27000 bps
c. 7200 bps
d. 14400 bps

Ans. c

Q3. How much bandwidth of Layer 3 is required for Call Control on an IP Phone on
a. 256 kbps
b. 150 kbps
c. 42 kbs
d. 128kbps

Ans. b

Q4. Cisco SIP Proxy Server make routing decisions based on:
a. To:Header
b. From:Header
c. user portion of the requested URI
d. cc:Header

Ans. c

Q5. MailStore options supported in Unity version 2,4,6 is __
a. Exchange 2000
b. Exchange 5.5
c. Domino
d. none of these

Ans. b

Q6. On a given T1/E1 line, __ signaling provides ANI, automatic Number
Identifications.
a. E&M-fgd
b. PRI
c. E&M-fgb
d. none of the above

Ans. a

Q7. Samplin rate used by PCM in accordance with Nyquist theorem
a. 4000 per second
b. 800 per second
c. 1600 per second
d. 8000 per second

Ans. d

Q8. In H.323 network,__ is NOT performed by the Gatekeeper on the Certkiller network?
a. Call authorization
b. Control of Call admission
c. Getting codec and its synchronzation
d. Call routing

Ans. c

Q9. Inter-Cluster communications signalling includes __ in a CallManager cluster.
a. Location Bandwidths
b. Shared media Resources
c. Registration of devices Locations bandwidth Shared media resources
d. all of the above

Ans. d

Q10. The type of transfer from AMIS to Email-server is __
a. Voica mail messagee
b. e-mail message
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

Ans. a

Q11. ___ command is used to enable CRTP
a. ip crtp compress yes
b. ip rtp compress
c. ip rtp header-compression
d. ip crtp header-compression

Ans. c

Q12. You have Cisco MCS server. The maximum weight device capacity doesnot depend
upon __
a. CCM software release version
b. memory, CPU and I/O throughput
c. Model of the server and its type
d. quantity of phones configured

Ans. d

Q13. Which protocol is used by IP Phone to learn the IP Address of its TFTP
Server?
a. DNS
b. RIPv2
c. OSPF
d. DHCP

Ans. d

Q14. __ signaling provides Dialed Number Information Service on a T1/E1
a. Loop start
b. Ground start
c. E&M
d. all of the above

Ans. d

Q15. Cisco SIP Proxy does not perform __
a. Proxy
b. Registration
c. Redirection
d. User agent

Ans. d

Q16. Unity TSP looks and behaves like __device
a. MGCP gateway
b. Cisco router
c. IP phone
d. TAPI device

Ans. d

Q17. CallManager uses __ for Integration to VoiceMail systems
a. RIPv2
b. RIPv1
c. SMDI
d. Q.931

Ans. c

Q18. For echo, Supplementary Services in ISDN is __
a. G.165
b. G.168
c. G.711
d. G.713

Ans. a,b

Q19. Two H.323 can be connected using
a. Q.931
b. H.255
c. SS7
d. all of the above

Ans. a

Q20. on a H.323 network, a node is
a. Proxy
b. Gatekeeper
c. Gateway
d. all of the above

Ans. d

Cisco(642-801):Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks (BSCI)

2008-09-06T20:38:00.000-07:00

Q1. What happens when a topology of network changes and causes routers to synchronize
their routing tables.
a. broadcast
b. multicast
c. flooding
d. convergence

Ans. d

Q2. what is the advantage of implementing a classless routing protocol?
a. VLSM support
b. discontinous subnets summarization
c. FLSM support
d. summarization of continous subnets

Ans. a,b

Q3. Which is not a classless routing protocol?
a. IGRP
b. IS-IS
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

Ans. a

Q4. when a route flaps, what does the router do then in a link state environment?
a. generates packets using hello protocol
b. floods area with new routing information
c. reboots
d. none of these

Ans. b

Q5. What is the difference between OSPF and RIP
a. OSPF is fast because of short routing tables
b. OSPF sends routing updates only when necessary
c. OSPF VLSM allows more efficient use of IP addresses
d. both are same and canbe used exchangabelly

Ans. b,c

Q6. OSPF is better than RIPv1 and RIPv2 because
a. greater scalibility and simple route selection
b. greater scalibility and simple configuration
c. simple configuration and simple route selection
d. greater memory requirements

Ans. a

Q7. 'hop count' is used by
a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. OSPF
d. IGRP

Ans. a,b

Q8. Which of the following does not use Bellman-Ford algorithm .
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. RIPv1
d. RIPv2

Ans. b

Q9. Which of the following uses DUAL algorithm
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. RIPv1
d. RIPv2

Ans. b

Q10. consider following authentication :
1. MD5
2. PAP
3. CHAP
4. cleartext

Ones supported by RIPv2 are:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

Ans. b

Q11. RIPv2 uses the Class D address __ to multicast its routing updates
a. 224.0.0.1
b. 220.0.0.1
c. 220.0.0.9
d. 224.0.0.9

Ans. d

Q12. How is network layer addresses applied in the OSI model
a. MAC address
b. IP address
c. Network Service Access Point address
d. Packet Layer Protocol address

Ans. c

Q13. Common characteristics of OSPF and IS-IS are :
a. Hello Protocol
b. SPF algorithm
c. Update, decision and flooding
d. link state database
e. all of the above

Ans. e

Q14. IS-IS routers that provide intra area routing services is
a. L1 ES
b. L1 IS
c. L1/L2 IS
d. L1/L2 ES

Ans. c

Q15. An administrator must connect each IS-IS area to
a. Level-1 backbone
b. Level-2 backbone
c. external IS-IS areas
d. Internal IS-IS areas

Ans. b

Q16. The area number assigned to IS-IS backbone is
a. 1
b. 0
c. Any number
d. Not required

Ans. d

Q17. which of the following is Private AS, autonomous system
a. 64513
b. 64500
c. 64130
d. 64511

Ans. a

Q18. How would you populate the BGP table on your router with IGP routes?
a. Redistribute dynamic routes into BGP
b. Redistribute static routes into BGP
c. Using netwrok commaand
d. Redistribute EBGP routes into BGP

Ans. c

Q19. How will you overcome the full mesh requirement with iBGP?
a. aggregate addresses
b. Route reflector
c. BGP groups
d. Confederation

Ans. b,d

Q20. __ can be used to hide internal IP to outsiders
a. subnetting
b. supernetting
c. Encryption
d. Authentication

Ans. b

cisco:(642-582):Wireless LAN for Field Engineers Exam

2008-09-06T09:18:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which of the following programs is used to push profiles out to multiple Cisco
Aironet Clients?
a. ABU
b. ACU
c. ACM
d. ACUA

Ans. b

Q2. Which parameter is available on the Express Setup screen of the Access Point?
a. WPA settings
b. WEP settings
c. IP address
d. SSID

Ans. c,d

Q3. __service set consists 2 or more BSSs ,hence forming a single subnetwork.
a. advanced
b. Extended
c. Basic
d. None of these

Ans. b

Q4. You want to eliminate null areas in RF coverage. The antenna architecture
would be
a. high gain omni
b. low gain omni
c. diversity
d. null area antennas

Ans. c

Q5. For 2.4 GHz ISM band, the total bandwidth is __
a. 73.5MHz
b. 83.5MHz
c. 93.5 MHz
d. 95.5 MHZ

Ans. b

Q6. FHSS, data signal is modulated with __ carrier signal
a. baseband
b. broadband
c. narrowband
d. zeroband

Ans. c

Q7. Cisco Aironet 350 Series client adapters follow __ IEEE
a. 802.11b
b. 802.11a
c. 802.11i
d. 802.11g

Ans. a

Q8. Consider you are using dynamic WEP keying. which parameter will not be required
to be configured on a Cisco Aironet 1100 Series Access Point?
a. enable cipher
b. RADIUS server IP address
c. 128-bit WEP key
d. None of these

Ans. d

Q9. User configure a SSID under __ web interface.
a. Network page
b. Security page
c. Express setup
d. SNMP

Ans. c

Q10. IEEE 802.11 maximum data rate is __
a. 128 Mbps
b. 256 Mbps
c. 54 Mbps
d. 96 Mbps

Ans. c

Q11.What is true about Cisco SWAN Radio Management?
a. WDS serves as an aggregator
b. it performs interference detection and isolation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

Ans. c

Q12. Which command is used to activate the changes made to a specific page in the CLI
a. Apply
b. enable
c. Save
d. Apply all

Ans. a

Q13. Which Access Point Mode is used in 802.11 through which devices communicate
with each other?
a. Broadcast
b. peer-to-peer
c. infrastructure
d. client-server

Ans. c

Q14. Ad-hoc mode is referred to as
a. Broadcast
b. peer-to-peer
c. infrastructure
d. client-server

Ans. b

Q15. A connection point between a wired and wireless network is called
a. CSD
b. WAP
c. Router
d. FHSS

Ans. b

Q16. Network name used for devices in a WLAN
a. SSID
b. WEP
c. Data Beacon Rate
d. Beacon period

Ans. a

Q17. What length of Ethernet cabling is supported when powering a 350 series Access
point
a. 100 m
b. 200 m
c. 150 m
d. 250 m

Ans. a

Q18. In Cisco's server-based authentication, client will be aware of how many WEPkeys
in each cell
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Ans. c

Q19. Best method of sealing connectors that are exposed to the environment is
a. duct tape
b. RTV
c. electric insulation
d. Coax-seal

Ans. d

Q20. __ number of authentication servers can be configured on the Access Point
a. 3
b. 4
c. 10
d. unlimited

Ans. b

Cisco(642-577):Wireless LAN for System Engineers

2008-09-06T02:52:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which program is used to push profiles out to multiple Cisco Aironet clients?
a. ACM
b. ACDU
c. ACAU
d. ACU

Ans. c

Q2. If the gain of the antenna goes up, the beamwidth _______.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. No change
d. polarity changes

Ans. a

Q3. Which is not required for WPA v1 for Enterprise Class Access Point?
a. WPA migrationMode
b. 256 bit encryption
c. Unicast and broadcast key management
d. 802.1 X authentication

Ans. b

Q4. What is the maximum number of wired clients that can send packets through the
WGB342 to an Access point?
a. 8
b. 18
c. 10
d. unlimited

Ans. a

Q5. Cisco Aironet 350 Series Client Adapters for notebook computers are available
in __ formats?
a. ISA
b. ISD
c. PCMCIA
d. PCI

Ans. c,d

Q6. Antennas that Cisco sells for the Aironet product line
are __ polarized
a. Vertically
b. horizontally
c. diagonally
d. Depends on antenna

Ans. a

Q7. Which value is not required in configuring ACS when adding an AP to ACS database
a. RADIUS shared secret
b. broadcast WEP key
c. Unique name for AP (AAA) in ACS database
d. AP hostname or IP address

Ans. b

Q8. The following port is monitored in hot standby mode to determine if Primary
access point isstil alive.
a. Radio port
b. Ethernet port
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q9. __ number of authentication servers can be confogured on access point
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 1

Ans. a

Q10. No licensing is required for which of the following RF bands?
a. 830-850MHz
b. 902-928 MHz
c. 2.400-2.483 GHz
d. 5.150-5.350 GHz
e. 5.725-5.825 GHz

Ans. b,c,d,e

Q11. WECA promotes __ wireless technology
a. WLAN
b. WiFi
c. Wireless adaptation
d. WECA technology

Ans. b

Q12. Which parameter is available on the Express Setup screen of the
Access Point?
a. SSID
b. Role in radio network
c. both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q13. Which tool is not applicable to Cisco WLAN?
a. CDM, Cisco Device Manager
b. RF sniffers
c. MIBs
d. Windows2000

Ans. a

Q14. Fast Secure Roaming improves total latency time associated with the roam from >
500 ms to __
a. <250 ms
b. <150 ms
c. <100 ms
d. <200 ms

Ans. b

Q15. __ number of WEP keys is what the client needs to configure in each cell
using Cisco server-based authentication
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans. b

Q16. WLAN is connected by
a. Radio frequencies
b. Cat5 cable
c. Twisted pair
d. Ultra Violet rays

Ans. a

Q17. Which authentication types are not defined by 802.11?
a. shared key
b. EAP-TLS
c. open
d. closed

Ans. b

Q18. EIRP is measured in __
a. dBa
b. dBi
c. dBm
d. dBx

Ans. c

Q19. which is unsuitable for discovering an IP address for a given Access Point?
a. IPSU
b. CDP
c. web browser
d. console port

Ans. c

Q20. Which IEEE 802.11 task group is responsible for the development of WLAN
security standards?
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11f
d. 802.11i

Ans. d

Cisco(642-291):Network Management

2008-09-03T16:09:00.000-07:00

Q1. QoS Policy Manager(QPM) is supported on which OS platform?
a. Windows XP
b. Linux
c. SOlaris
d. Windows 2000

Ans. d

Q2. Which of the following is not valid n IPM, Internetwork Performance Monitor?
a. SNMP echo
b. HTTP
c. DNS
d. DHCP

Ans. a

Q3. Which is not the main funcion of Cisco Work 2000 Server?
a. User Administration
b. Network Administration
c. Network Tools
d. CMC, Cisco Management Connection

Ans. c

Q4. Which of the following is not valid retrieval option for NMIDB, Network
Management Integration Database?
a. FTP
b. import from NMS
c. local file system
d. Cisco Connection Online (CCO)

Ans. a

Q5. QPM does not supply the following QOS:
a. modification
b. maintenance
c. policy guidance
d. configuration

Ans. a

Q6. NAM, Network analysis Module for Catalyst6500 has the main function of __
a. Inbound traffic monitoring
b. Outbound traffic monitoring
c. Intrusion Detection
d. Load Balancing

Ans. a,b

Q7. Which is the new feature of Cisco Secure ACS v3.0?
a. Kerberos Proxy Support
b. SNMP MIB
c. LDAP accounting
d. 802.1x support for catalyst switches

Ans. d

Q8. which of the following is not a VMS module?
a. VPN Monitor
b. RME, Resource Manager Essentials
c. IDS host Sensor
d. IDS Director

Ans. d

Q9. which of the following cisco applications is required for implementing VoIP
Healh Monitor successfully?
a. Cisco Call Manager
b. RME
c. Cisco Voice Manager, CVM
d. Device Fault Manager, DFM

Ans. d

Q10. User Tracking table in Campus Manager can not display the following for end
user?
a. DNS host name
b. Switch Port number
c. Device type
d. DNS host name

Ans. c

Q11. which of the CISCO partners use CVM for basic reporting technology?
a. BMC software
b. Telemate
c. HP
d. Toshiba

Ans. b

Q12. __ command will configure a target device as an SAA, Service Assurance agent
a. rtr respond
b. rtr responder
c. rtr configure
d. rtr responder on

Ans. b

Q13. CD One installation requires which of the following types of IP addresses on
the Cisco Works 2000 Server?
a. Static
b. Public
c. Private
d. Dynamic

Ans. a

Q14. Which of the following is used for admin control of Cisco device configuration
changes?
a. RADIUS
b. ARP
c. TACACS+
d. http

Ans. c

Q15. IPM requires __ device type to measure network latency.
a. AppleTalk server
b. any IP addressable device
c. IBM Mainframe
d. IPX host

Ans. b,c

Q16. What is the maximum amount of network show commands that can be added to
a single command set for IDS routers in Resource Manager Essentials (RME)?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 256
d. 6

Ans. d

Q17. Which default user account should be used to configure the Cisco Works 2000
Server?
a. Admin
b. Administrator
c. root
d. guest

Ans. a

Q18. which of the following processes is not used by VHM to monitor IP Telephony
a. SNMP traps
b. SNMP polling
c. ICMP polling
d. CDR, call detail Record polling

Ans. d

Q19. Hostng Solutions Engine, HSE , is used for managing __
a. WANs
b. LANs
c. Internet Data Centers
d. application servers

Ans. c

Q20. Resource Manager Essentials (RME) uses __ to move device configurations.
a. telnet
b. ftp
c. tftpage
d. rcp

Ans. a,c,d

cisco(640-861):Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (DESGN)

2008-09-02T09:36:00.000-07:00

Q1. which is not used to measure netwok performance?
a. Capacity
b. Utilization
c. Response time
d. Bandwidth

Ans. d

Q2. Which of the following method's functions indicate data integrity?
a. Digital signatures
b. 2-factor authentication
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q3. which of the threats are most common to VPNs?
a. data confidentiality
b. DOS
c. DDOS
d. IP spoofing

Ans. a,d

Q4. Which of the following technologies allows the retaining of security policies
over the internet?
a. VLAN
b. VPN
c. ATM
d. frame relay

Ans. b

Q5. __ is done in the server farm module of Enterpise composite Network Model?
a. Packet filtering
b. Port Security
c. AAA control
d. All of the above

Ans. b

Q6. Which is not a functional area of Enterpise composite Network Model?
a. Enterpise management
b. Enterproise Edge
c. Enterprise Campus

Ans. a

Q7. What is the maximum network response time sothat productivity remains high and
quantity of user complaints remains low?
a. 200 ms
b. 150 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 500 ms

Ans. c

Q8. Which testing tecniques can be used as poof of concept for network design?
a. Pilotnetwork
b. Prototype network
c , Both a and b
d. none of these

Ans. b

Q9. In VLSM, Variable Length Subnet Masking, which is unsuitable amongst the
following?
a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. OSPF
d. EIGRP

Ans. a

Q10. You want a low bandwidth and routes that rarely change. Also, you have been
given a hub. Which will u go for?
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. Static routing
d. Dynamic routing

Ans. c

Q11. which is not suitable for a network using VLSM?
a. RIPv2
b. RIPv1
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

Ans. b

Q12. For a classless network design, which of the following would you go for?
a. EIGRP
b. OSPF
c. IGRP
d. RIPv1

Ans. a,b

Q13. Which of the following are not primary functions of an Access Layer in a campus
design hierarchy?
a. Provides connectivity to remote offices.
b. Provides policy-based routing services.
c. Connects shared LAN devices.
d. Provides connectivity to end-users.
e. Provides route summarization services.

Ans. b,e

Q14. Consider the case where you need voice traffic.A frame relay network already
exists and you want the traffic over it. However, you do not need IP telephones
as you cannt spend that much now.
What network hardware should be used for the above case??
a. Voice keeper
b. voice gateway
c. MCU
d. Frame Relayaccess Device

Ans. b

Q15. Which of the following codecs does Cisco recommend for WAN links when reducing the required bandwidth over a converged network for each voice call?
a. G.711
b. G.723
c. G.728
d. G.729

Ans. d

Q16. Which technologies can reduce VoIP call generated traffic amount?
a. QOS
b. GOS
c. VAD, Voice Activation Detection
d. CRTP, Compressed Real-time Transport Protocol

Ans. c,d

Q17. In order to have fast access to various exchanges all around the world, without
any interruption . This can be done by using
a. CoS
b. QoS
c. GoS
d. CDP

Ans. a,b

Q18. which of the following supports IP and CLNP protocols?
a. BGP
b. OSPF
c. IS-IS
d. RIPv1

Ans. c

Q19. snap-shot routing is supported by __
a. RIPv1
b. OSPF
c. RIPv2
d. EIGRP

Ans. c

Q20 Local addresses are converted to registered ones using __
a. Local Address Translation
b. Cisco Address Translation
c. Network Address trnanslation
d. none of the above

Ans. c

sun exam questions015

2008-09-01T10:35:00.000-07:00

QUESTION
1
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first
metadevices. What initial action must you take?
A. Run a command to create the first stat database.
B. Run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9.
C. Run a command to initialize the configuration metadevices.
D. Run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use.
E. Create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command.

Answer B

Cisco(640-821):Introduction to Cisco networking technologies

2008-08-30T06:59:00.000-07:00

Q1. Given a subnet mask 255.255.255.224 . Then which of the following is an invalid address, i.e. that can not be assigned to host on the given subnet.
a. 192.168.16.83
b. 92.11.178.66
c. 134.178.18.44
d. 192.168.16.100

Ans. d

Q2. If you need 5 subnets, and you have class C network, then which network mask
should you use to accomodate 18 hosts.
a. 225.225.224.0
b. 225.225.225.225
c. 255.255.255.224
d. 255.252.255.214

Ans. c

Q3. How many usable IP addresses exist in class C network?
a. 192
b. 256
c. 255
d. 254

Ans. d

Q4. Consider the case, where the boot system commands are missing in NVRAM. Then, the
Cisco IOS will be looked by router in __
a. RAM
b. Harddisk
c. ROM
d. Flash

Ans. d

Q5. Which information is not supplied by CDP?
a. Capabilities List
b. Route identifier
c. Device Identifiers
d. Platform

Ans. b

Q6. Which VTP mode a catalyst switch should be to be able to able to delete and
add VLANs to a management domain?
a. Client
b. Server
c. Transparent
d. Domain

Ans. b

Q7. Pick the odd one out. Which is not a type of flow control in a Cisco network
a. Windowing
b. Buffering
c. Learning
d. Source-Quench

Ans. c

Q8. What is the advantage of full-duplex Ethernet ovver single duplex?
a. Zero collision domain
b. Faster data transfer
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q9. Which of the following does not use UDP?
a. SMTP
b. DHCP
c. SNMP

Ans. a

Q10. consider the following IP 27.35.16.32/28 . Which of the following can not be
assigned to a host?
a. 27.35.16.32
b. 27.35.16.43
c. 27.35.16.38
d. 27.35.16.40

Ans. a

Q11. Which cable is used to make a connection between the Fa0/0 port on a router
and the Fa0/0 port on switch?
a. Crossover cable
b. Rollover cable
c. Straight-through cable
d. Serial cable

Ans. c

Q12. For a peer to peer connection to connect 2 PCs, which cable can be used?
a. Crossover cable
b. Rollover cable
c. Straight-through cable
d. Serial cable

Ans. a

Q13. Reliable end to end delivery is provided by __ layer
a. Transport
b. Session
c. Network
d. Data-link

Ans. a

Q14. For configuring a dafault route, you can use:
a. router1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
b. router1(config)# ip route any any e0
c. router1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
d. router1(config)# ip default-route 255.255.255.0 s0

Ans. a

Q15. The default administrative distance of OSPF routing protocol is:
a. 150
b. 50
c. 110
d. 170

Ans. c

Q16. In order to configure a router for load balancing across unequal cost paths,
you can use:
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

Ans. c

Q17. Which of the following protocols doesnot support VLSM and route summarization?
a. IGRP
b. EIGRP
c. RIP v2
d. OSPF

Ans. a

Q18. __ allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is meant for a remote host.
a. Reverse ARP
b. Proxy ARP
c. Inverse ARP
d. Http

Ans. b

Q19. __ can be used to support multiple protocols i.e. appleTalk, IPX, IP.
a. RIP v1
b. RIP v2
c. IGRP
d. EIGRP

Ans. d

Q20. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 on a local subnet can have maximum number of
__ IP addresses.
a. 30
b. 29
c. 31
d. 32

Ans. a

Cisco(640-801): Cisco Certified Network Associate

2008-08-29T12:00:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which protocol is used to maintain loop-free network, and operates at layer2?
a. CDP
b. RIP
c. OSPF
d. STP

Ans. d

Q2. Which layer does not belong to TCP-IP model?
a. Network
b. Internet
c. Transport
d. Application

Ans. a

Q3. The most common 2 layer device is:
a. Switch
b. Hub
c. Router
d. Bridge

Ans. a

Q4. Which of the following protocols does not belong to application layer?
a. SMTP
b. HTTP
c. FTP
d. ARP

Ans. d

Q5. Which of the following is not a spanning tree port state:
a. Listening
b. Forwarding
c. Learning
d. Filtering

Ans. d

Q6. Which of the following does not contribute to LAN traffic congestion?
a. Broadcast Storms
b. Broadcast domain with many hosts
c. segmentation
d. Multicasting

Ans. c

Q7. Giga ethernet standardis:
a. 802.3ab
b. 802.3z
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q8. With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not perform
the DR/BDR election process?
a. point-to-point
b. backbone area 0
c. broadcast multicast
d. nonbroadcast mutluaccess

Ans. a

Q9. Which command is used to display the memory occupied by current IOS and whether
enough space is there to hold both current and new images?
a. Router#show flash
b. Router#show memory
c. Router#show space
d. Router#show free

Ans. a

Q10. You can not use __ to segment a local network.
a. Switch
b. Bridge
c. Hub
d. Router

Ans. c

Q11. You wanna deny traffic rom a particular host. Whch of the following can be used?
a. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 10.13.99.111 host
b. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 10.13.99.111 any
c. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 10.13.99.111 0.0.0.0
d. All of the above

Ans. c

Q12. you wanna connect the main office to various sub offices at different locations.
Also, you wanna use only hub , and packet switching. Which will suit?
a. E1 leased line
b. DSL
c. ISDN
d. Frame Relay

Ans. d

Q13. In order to configure a default route, command used is:
a. Router (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
b. Router (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.4
c. Router (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 E0
d. Router (config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.4

Ans. a,b

Q14. Which of the following switching modes focus on integrity and error free
rather than maximizing the speed?
a. Fragment-free
b. Store and forward
c. 802.1q forwarding
d. None of these

Ans. b

Q15. On starting Cisco IOS, start up configuration is stored in:
a. FLASH
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. NVRAM

Ans. d

Q16. The prompt for priviliged mode has a symbol:
a. @
b. $
c. #
d. *

Ans. c

Q17. You wanna know the name of the IOs image being used. Command is
a. Rtr#show image
b. Rtr#show iso
c. Rtr#show version
d. Rtr#show flash

Ans. c,d

Q18. Your network is attached to a frame relay. You give command
'Router1# show frame-relay'. Which of the following you would not be prompted
for?
a. Clients
b. lmi
c. map
d. pvc

Ans. a

Q19. Sequencing and acknowledgements come under whih layer?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5
f. Layer 6

Ans. d

Q20. WANs operate at
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5
f. Layer 6

Ans. b,c

Cisco(350-018): CCIE pre qualification Security test

2008-08-28T10:06:00.000-07:00

Q1. tftp uses:
a. UDP 69
b. UDP 79
c. TCP 69
d. TCP 79

Ans. a

Q2. Whats the difference between a hash and encryption.
a. Hash is reversible
b. encryption has fixed length
c. Hash has fixed length
d. encryption is very strong and hence cannot be broken

Ans. c

Q3. Suppose you want to use the methods not supported by NAS. Which of them will
allow you to do so?
a. SLIP
b. EAP
c. PPP
d. OSPF

Ans. b

Q4. You want to know about new TCP-UDP sessions initiating from your intranet to
Internet. which type of access list will you use to catch these sessions?
a. Dynamic access lists
b. static access lists
c. Reflexive access lists
d. Reflective access lists

Ans. c

Q5. For disabling CDP on interface 0/0, you will choose the command __ in global
config mode
a. no cdp
b. no cdp enable
c. no cdp run
d. no cdp move

Ans. c

Q6. CBAC does not do:
a. Alerts
b. Audit trails
c. IDS
d. Traffic monitoring and filtering
e. None of these

Ans. e

Q7. Which is not the valid responses of the RADIUS server after providing
credentials?
a. DENY
b. ACCEPT
c. REJECT
D. CHANGE PASSWORD

Ans. a

Q8. CBAC makes filtering decisions in IOS firewall feature Set environment by
looking at the layer:
a. Network
b. Application
c. Transport
d. All of the above

Ans. d

Q9. Which of these are not set by default by ASA on a PIX firewall?
a. Allowed outbound connections
b. Denied inbound connections
c. All packets allowed
d. All ICMP denied

Ans. c

Q10. Which protocol provides seperate facilities for 3 A's. i.e A,A,A?
a. TCP
b. Kerberos
c. SSH
d. TACACS+

Ans. d

Q11. The number of the most common attack signatures supported by Cisco IDS?
a. 100
b. None
c. 90
d. 59

Ans. d

Q12. Which is the path vector routing protocol?
a. RIP
b. BGP
c. OSPF
d. All of these

Ans. b

Q13. The commonly used port for kerberos is:
a. 88
b. 72
c. 523
d. 873

Ans. 88

Q14. What is true about SYN flood attacks?
a. ACKs are sent to receiever nonstop, which makes the receiver to send SYNs,
and hence wait or ACKs
b. Request packets are sent to receiver with random port addresses and port
numbers, utilizing the network resources.
c. A SYN is sent with URG set, again and again.
d. All of the above

Ans. b

Q15. Which of the following is used to encrypt data between a router and TACACS+?
a. RSA
b. DES
c. Kerberose
d. MD5

Ans. d

Q16. How can you restrict SNMP access to a router(command)?
a. snmp-server community
b. snmp-server username
c. snmp-server restrict
d. snmp-server host

Ans. a

Q17. Which encryption algorithm is used for MS point-to-point protocol?
a. DES
b. MD5
c. RSA RC4
d. blowfish

Ans. c

Q18. Which of these does not go in RADIUS Access-Accept process?
a. IP address
b. Access challenge
c. Service type
d. User's encrypted password

Ans. d

Q19. Which of these can not connect 2 VLANs?
a. ISL
b. RSRB
c. Trucking
d. 802.1q

Ans. b

Q20. Which of these is required for backup authentication method?
a. AAA
b. RADIUS
c. Kerbebros
d. MD5

Ans. a

Cisco(9E0-851): Customer Response solution, CRS

2008-08-26T10:26:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which JTAPI call state is not controlled by the system?
a. Received
b. Answered
c. Rejected
d. Accepted

Ans. c

Q2. CRS subsystem responsible for the connection between application server and speech files is:
a. Server subsystem
b. Database subsystem
c. Application subsystem
d. Media subsystem

Ans. c

Q3. Which step does not perform logical operations?
a. If
b. Switch
c. for
d. goto

Ans. c,d

Q4. In order to play text as speech, CRS server has to make__
a. Text document
b. ASR document
c. File document
d. TTS prompt

Ans. d

Q5. Which step gets added to the script automatically, if not given?
a. Start
b. End
c. Connect
d. Reject
e. all of the above

Ans. a

Q6. In which step, you answer the call from call Manager.
a. Connect
b. Accept
c. Start
d. Begin
e. Any of them can be used

Ans. b

Q7. __ number of enterprise Data fields are available to CRS applications.
a. 250
b. 200
c. 201
d. 231

Ans. d

Q8. Which SQL command cannot be used in DB WRITE step?
a. SQL Insert
b. Insert
c. Update
d. Delete

Ans. a

Q9. In order to get data from LDAP for a user, perform the following step.
a. Get User Info
b. Get Call Info
c. Get User
d. Get Call

Ans. a

Q10. Which is not a CRS subsystem?
a. JTAPI
b. ICD
c. Email
d. Server

Ans. d

Q11. Call redirect step is in __ Pallette.
a. Session
b. Application
c. Call contact
d. Call reject

Ans. c

Q12. Which call state is not controlled by CRS application.
a. Transferred
b. Disconnected
c. Accepted
d. Abandoned

Ans. c

Q13. In order to check out a database connection, following two steps are used.
a. DB Read and DB Write
b. DB Get and DB Read
c. DB Write and DB Get
d. DB Read, DB Write and DB Get

Ans. a

Q14. JTAPI provider is the IP address of __
a. Call Receiver
b. Call Manager
c. CRS server
d. Publisher

Ans. b

Q15. Before sending an email, the necessary step is
a. Attach email
b. Create email
c. Send email
d. cc email

Ans. b

Q16. TTS is
a. Text to Signal
b. Text to Sound
c. Text to Speech
d. Text to Speech Synthesis

Ans. c

Q17. Which is not the necessary step:
a. Create mail
b. Send mail
c. Attach to mail
d. cc mail

Ans. c,d

Q18. DB Get happens only after
a. DB Read
b. DB Write
c. DB Edit
d. DB Release

Ans. a

Q19. Real Time CRS Reports have time frame of
a. Past 5 mins
b. Past 1 day
c. Only current information
d. Last one month information.

Ans. c

Q20. An agent may have
a. 10 skills
b. 50 skills
c. Unlimited skills
d. 0 skills

Ans. b

CISCO Network Management (9E0-300)

2008-08-25T03:14:00.000-07:00

Q1. VoIP Health Monitor (VHM) and Device Fault
Manager (DFM) use which CISCO technology?
a. TIBCO bus
b. SMARTS technology

Ans. b

Q2. Cisco Secure ACS v3.0 runs on which of the following?
a. windows 2000
b. windows NT
c. SUSE
d. Solaris

Ans. a,b

Q3. Cisco Secure Policy Manager is used to manager following Cisco products:
a. PIX firewalls
b. VPN concentrators
c. PIX firewalls
d. IOS Routers
e. Switches

Ans. c,d

Q4. Which default user account can be used to configure the Cisco Works 2000 Server?
a. Administrator
b. Admin
c. user
d. Cisco

Ans. b

Q5. Before installing ACL Manager, which of them should be installed?
a. ACLs
b. IPM
c. CDOne
d. All of the above

Ans. c

Q6. In Campus Manager, User Tracking table cannot display the following for the end
user?
a. Port number of switch
b. Default Gateway
c. Login name
d. DNS name of the host

Ans. b

Q7. Which process is not used to monitor the health of the IP
telephony environment in VHM?
a. ICMP polling
b. SNMP traps
c. SNMP polling
d. CDR interrogation

Ans. d

Q8. Which IP address type is required by CD One installation on Cisco Works 2000?
a. Public
b. Private
c. Static
d. Dynamic

Ans. c

Q9. VLAN Policy Server (VPS) appliance can support maximum __ users.
a. 5000
b. 50000
c. 1000
d. 3000

Ans a.

Q10. Which account in windows OS is suitable to install CD One?
a. root
b. guest
c. Administrator
d. user

Ans. c

Q11. The main function of Network Analysis Module (NAM) for Catalyst 6500 is:
a. Monitoring the network traffic
b. Outbound traffic only
c. Inbound traffic only
d. Intrusion Prevention

Ans. a

Q12. HSE,Hosting Solution Engine's security model is based on which of the following
a. Network domain
b. User role
c. both a and b
d. host role

Ans. c

Q13.__ uses Cisco Voice Manager (CVM) for basic reporting.
a. HP
b. IBM
c. Telemate
d. Sony

Ans. c

Q14. HSE,Hosting Solution engines manage:
a. LANs
b. MANs
c. WANs
d. Internet data Centers

Ans. d

Q15. Which amongst the following is not used by RME, Resource Managers Essential
for moving device configurations.
a. scp
b. rcp
c. Telnet
d. all of the above

Ans. a

Q16. How will you confiure syslog on a Cisco router "Cisco1"?
a. Cisco1 (config)# logging serverIPaddress
b. Cisco1 (config)# set logging level all 4
c. Cisco1 (config)# set logging level all 6
d. Cisco1 (config)# set logging server serverIPaddress

Ans. a

Q17. Which is not the main function of Cisco Works 2000 Server?
a. CMC, Cisco Management Connection
b. Providing Network tools
c. User Administration
d. None of these

Ans. d

Q18. Which RME,Resource Management Essentials option should be used before
generating an up-to-data inventory report?
a. Update Rar
b. Update Archive
c. Update Inventory
d. any one of the above

Ans. c

Q19. To enable VoIP call tracing during Path Analysis, which must be configured?
a. SNMP enabled Cisco Call Manager
b. CallDetailRecord enabled on Cisco Call Manager
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q20. Internetwork Performance Monitor , IPM, supports which appliance to measure
network latency?
a. IBM mainframe
b. SUN solaris
c. All devices which are IP addressable
d. Novell

Ans. a,c

IBM Test 000-285 Sample Questions

2008-08-24T02:58:00.000-07:00

Q1. Which searches can be performed within the WebSphere Studio Workbench?
a. Text
b. Regular Expression based
c. Syntactical
d. Java

Ans. d

Q2.Which of the following are valid properties of Schema?
a. Cluster
b. Database Name
c. Folder
d. Name

Ans. b,c,d

Q3. How can you monitor requests and responses between application server and
a Web browser?
a. monitors
b. agents
c. watchdog functions
d. TCP-IP Monitoring Server

Ans. d

Q4. In which directory, the web.xml file must reside under the
context of the hierarchy of directories for a Web Application?
a. WEB
b. WEB-INF
c. CLASSES
d. LIB

Ans. b

Q5. Which component automatically manages refactoring for Websphere developer?
a. JIT
b. JDT

Ans. b

Q6. If content assist is available for the positioned cursor, and a pop-up list of available choices is displayed while launching content assist, which is based on:
a. Directory Tree
b. schema
c. content
d. context

Ans. d

Q7. Which amongst them is valid for Web session management for server
instance?
a. Enable SSL keys
b. Enable Cookies
c. Enable URL rewriting
d. Enable URL substitution

Ans. b,d

Q8. "Java content assist is available", this is best described by-
a. Web Projects
b. EJB Projects
c. Scriptlets
d. All of the above

Ans. a,c

Q9. Entity beans with Container Managed Persistence fields are mapped to?
a. Database tables
b. Columns
c. Rows
d. Databases

Ans. a,b

Q10. Which of them is the WebSphere Studio debugger's function?
a. Remote debug
d. Thread suspension
c. Step over and step in
d. Set breakpoints
e. All of the above

Ans. e

Q11. tag is used for?
a. get a property value in a JavaBean
b. set a property value in a JavaBean
c. redirection
d. all of these, but in a different manner

Ans. b

Q13. Suppose you have an EJB project.When you import into this project, what happens
to Deployment Descriptor and Extension Information:
a. They get merged
b. They get overwritten
c. They get copied
d. No change

Ans. a

Q14. HTML content assist can be accessed by:
a. Shift f5
b. Ctrl Space
c. Select File menu, Select Content assist
d. none of these

Q15. Which is necessary to query database in WebSphere studio?
a. SQL builder plugin
b. Presence of data in a database
c. Access to database
d. All three

Ans. a,c

Q16. Server configuration contains information required for _
a. Project set up
b. Project removal
c. Set up and publish server
d. EJB creation

Ans. c

Q17. In which case VM does not terminats?
a. System.exit()call
b. Page is closed
c. Page is terminated in debugger
d. All of the above

Ans. d

Q18. In Export wizard, which export destination is invalid?
a. RAR file
b. WAR file
c. SQL datbase
d. CVS file
e. FTP

Ans. c,d

Q19. Which of the following is not supported by Websphere Studio V5.0?
a. Informix
b. DB2
c. PeopleSoft
d. Sybase

Ans. c

Q20. Consider the host variable :HOST. Which is the database vendor then?
a. MySql
b. PeopleSoft
c. DB2
d. Oracle
e. Informix

Ans. c,d,e

Q21. How can we filter tables from a view of a database?
a. Programming to restrict JDBC
b. Can not be filtered
c. Restricting resultset programmatically
d. Adding a filter using DBExplorer

Ans. d

Q22. When creating a new server project, server instance identifies -
a. containers
b. components
c. server
d. Runtime environment

Ans. d